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Originally Posted by madleinx
I believe that the law is against the distribution of obscenity (through the internet, mail, or otherwise). Hardcore pornography is not explicitly defined as obscenity, which is based on the "Miller Test" of 1973. And the recent decision in the Extreme Associatiates case may have messed up Miller as well.
Or am I interpreting all of that incorrectly?
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That is my understanding of it as well. Obscenity has always been determined on a case by case basis since it is so subjective. DA's tend to stay away from obscenity cases because they almost always go the way of the defendant. (Thank you Mr. Flynt
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