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Old 2005-06-24, 03:49 PM   #11
MadMax
"Without evil there can be no good, so it must be good to be evil sometimes" ~ Satan
 
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Join Date: Aug 2004
Location: Motor City, baby, where carjacking was invented! Now GIMME THOSE SHOES!
Posts: 2,385
Lucky for you I had the same question a few weeks back and did the research

Here's the relevant text, copied from the ever-helpful Cornell Law US Code website, with links to the pages the text is pulled from :
http://www4.law.cornell.edu/uscode/h...6----000-.html

2) “sexually explicit conduct” means actual or simulated—
(A) sexual intercourse, including genital-genital, oral-genital, anal-genital, or oral-anal, whether between persons of the same or opposite sex;
(B) bestiality;
(C) masturbation;
(D) sadistic or masochistic abuse; or
(E) lascivious exhibition of the genitals or pubic area of any person;

The applicable text of the ACTUAL 2257 statute (not the rules, which are what changed, the DOJ has no power to change the statute):
http://www4.law.cornell.edu/uscode/s...7----000-.html

(h) As used in this section—
(1) the term “actual sexually explicit conduct” means actual but not simulated conduct as defined in subparagraphs (A) through (D) of paragraph (2) of section 2256 of this title;


So, while point (E) of the section in 2256 is excluded from material requiring recordkeeping, (A) - (D) are covered, including "sadistic or masochistic abuse", which spanking would fall under.

IANAL, but the way I read this you'd best have docs for spanking even if the spankee is wearing full body armor
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